|
19 March 2011 By
Juan Cole The Translating-Jihad
site is one of the newest additions to the anti-Muslim
blogosphere. Its creator, Al-Mutarjim (The
Translator), defines his site's goal as translating
Arabic documents into English in order to "expose this
darkness" of Islam and to "to open the eyes of those
already enslaved by Islam." The fact that
Islamophobes routinely use bogus translations and
out-of-context quotes is well-known. But as if only
to prove our case, the Translating-Jihad website
challenged us to "refute this translation", referring
to an Arabic fatwa that he "translated" on his
website. We accepted this challenge and exposed his
"translation" as completely bogus. Al-Mutarjim had
completely mistranslated words and purposefully
neglected to translate 4/5ths of the fatwa,
including the mufti's conclusion–a
conclusion which directly contradicts
what Al-Mutarjim claimed the fatwa said (and which he
incidentally chose as the title of his article!). Eventually, Al-Mutarjim
was forced to reply to our site. Instead of admitting
fault, he issued an "updated" translation in which he
attempted to "explain away" his academic dishonesty.
Al-Mutarjim whined: First of all, I have
no desire or need to take anything about Islam out
of context. This is the tired old accusation that
CAIR-types like to drag out whenever anybody in the
West points out some of the objectionable material
inherent in Islam. Both Al-Mutarjim and
his anti-Muslim colleague Staring at the View
(SATV) use "whenever" and "anybody" arguments quite
frequently. "Whenever anybody in
the West…" LoonWatch is not talking about
"anybody". We're talking about one
particular person and one particular site
here: Al-Mutarjimspecifically and his site specifically. Just as Al-Mutarjim
quite stupidly chose to use a bogus translation when
he challenged us to "refute this translation", once
again he quite stupidly validates "the tired old
accusation" –namely, that Islamophobes take Islamic
texts out of context. Think, McFly, think! Al-Mutarjim
ends up unknowingly validating the "the tired old
accusation" by "translating" a fatwa completely out of
context, which is evident for everyone to see! Nikah as
"Sexual Intercourse" or "Betrothal/Marriage"? Al-Mutarjim
mistranslated the following: فيؤخذ من الآية
جواز نكاح البنت قبل البلوغ" As this: we can take from this
verse that it is permissible to have sexual
intercourse with a prepubescent girl. When it actually
translates as: and from this verse we
take the permissibility of betrothal/marriage (nikah)
with pre-pubescent girls. In Al-Mutarjim's
response, he bumbles: That being said,
Loonwatch is being dishonest when they say that the
Arabic wordnikah, which they translated as
‘marriage/betrothal', "does not mean sexual
intercourse at all." The truth is, nikah
can mean either ‘sexual intercourse' or ‘marriage.'
(Need proof? Plug نكاح into Google Translate.) Al-Mutarjim accusing
LoonWatch of being dishonest? How rich! Once again,
Al-Mutarjim is guilty of "half-quoting", splicing up
quotes to support his argument. In fact, what
LoonWatch actually said was (emphasis added): The word nikah here
does not mean "sexual intercourse" at all. Notice the key word
"here", which Al-Mutarjim leaves out. Even if–for
argument's sake only–we conceded that "nikah" could
sometimes mean "sexual intercourse", can this meaning
work in the sentence above? For example, the English
word "sex" can refer to intimate relations in one
sentence, but gender in another. The meaning
"intimate relations" cannot be used to explain the
meaning of sex in the following sentence: Please state your
name, sex, and age. Would Al-Mutarjim have
a case if he were to claim that the word "sex" above
could also mean "intimate relations"? Of course not.
And neither does he have a leg to stand on when he
claims that "nikah" means "sex" in the sentence
reproduced from the fatwa. Even his primary
"academic" proof–Google Translator–does not
back his claim: when we enter the entire Arabic
sentence into it, here's what Google says: We are of course not
surprised that Al-Mutarjim invoked "Google Translator"
since we have long since suspected–based on noticeable
similarities–that Al-Mutarjim's and Robert Spencer's
translations are simply "cleaned up" versions of
Google Translator. Again, this speaks to the profound
academic qualifications of the self-appointed experts
of Islam. Perhaps The Translator ought to change his
name to The Google Translator. How about we rely on
some real academic sources, instead of Google
Translator? Here's what Al-Mawrid, arguably
the most commonly used Arabic-to-English and
English-to-Arabic lexicon, says: As can be clearly seen
above, the highlighted areas dealing both with nikah
and nakaha (the verb/root nikah comes
from), all relate to marriage. In fact, the compiler
of the dictionary equates nikah with zawaj,
which Al-Mutarjim himself translates as "marriage" in
the fatwa. Similarly, the verb nakaha is equated to tazawwaj,
which means "to be married". The authoritative Hans
Wehr dictionary, regarded as an essential tool
for the English-speaking student of Arabic, says: Notice that every
single word the dictionary gives from the root letters
"n k h"–including nikah–all refer to marriage. When we look at Al-Mu‘jam
al-Wasit, which is an established and popular
Arabic-Arabic dictionary (similar to the Oxford
English Dictionary in English, for example), we find
likewise: The underlines within
the red box show the word zawaj (marriage) as being
synonymous to nikah–and in fact to all the various
words from the root "n k h". In other words, all refer
to marriage, marrying and the procedure of marriage. Nowhere do we see the
meaning of "sexual intercourse" in any of these
dictionaries! It is the reader's decision whether to
rely on Google Translator in its beta form or to refer
to actual academic sources. Al-Mutarjim whines: I concede that the
Mufti could have meant marriage, but he also could
have meant sexual intercourse. No, he couldn't have.
If Al-Mutarjim had not used ellipses (…) everywhere to
mask the fatwa's real meaning, he would have noted
this immediately above: ومن المهم كذلك
أن نعرف أن الفقهاء وإن أجازوا تزويج الصغيرة فإنهم
منعوا زوجها أن يطأها حتى تطيق الوطء ، وهذا يختلف
باختلاف الأزمنة والأمكنة والبيئات. And it is important
for us to know that even though the jurists
approved betrothing a child, they prevented her
husband from having intercourse with her until she
could bear it [lit. intercourse], which can differ
according to the time, place and environment. What is amazing is
that Al-Mutarjim himself–in his updated version–is
forced to translate the passage above, which he
renders as: It is also important
that we understand that the scholars, while they
permitted marrying off young girls, they forbade her
husband from having intercourse with her until she
could bear it… This sentence in and
of itself completely invalidates his "translation" of
the sentence ("we can take from this verse that it is
permissible to have sexual intercourse with a
prepubescent girl") as well as the title given to his
article ("It Is Permissible to Have Sexual Intercourse
with a Prepubescent Girl"). This is the case even
using his own translation! The Mufti
could not possibly mean
"sexual intercourse" in the sentence translated, since
he clearly states that the jurists forbade/prevented
it. What the mufti was
saying, quite clearly, was: (1) Betrothal/marriage
of young (prepubescent) girls is technically
permitted. (2) However, this does
not mean that sexual intercourse may take place. (3) Later on in the
fatwa, he states that the ruling permitting such early
betrothals/marriages is archaic and does not apply to
today's situation. Al-Mutarjim's
deceitful manipulation of the fatwa changed (1) above
to say that sexual intercourse is permitted, and
completely omitted points (2) and (3). If this is not
academic dishonesty, then what is? Yet, Al-Mutarjim says: Translation is an
art, not a science, and translators can and do argue
over the correct translation of certain words and
phrases. In this case, the only
art that Al-Mutarjim has mastered is the art of
deception! (Yet another example of how the
Islamophobes are guilty of projection when they cry
about taqiyya.) Al-Mutarjim continues
to build a case against himself, explaining why he
chose "sexual intercourse" instead of
"betrothal/marriage": In this case, I went
with ‘sexual intercourse' because from the context,
it seems clear to me that the Mufti is not just
talking about signing a marriage contract without
consummating it. Right after that statement he talks
about how Muhammad not only married ‘A'isha
but then had sex with her when she was only nine
years old, i.e. a prepubescent girl. Here, Al-Mutarjim's
lack of educational qualifications and profound
ignorance of Islam come to the fore! Here's what the
fatwa said, which he refers to: وقد صح أن
النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم عقد على عائشة وهي بنت ست
سنين إلا أنه لم يدخل بها إلا وهي بنت تسع سنين، رواه
البخاري. And it is verified
that the Prophet (peace be upon him) had contracted
with Aisha when she was six years old, but
he did not have intercourse with her, until she was
9 years old, as narrated by Bukhari. Does he not see that
this is a great proof against
his claim!? The mufti is saying that Aisha was
betrothed/married to the Prophet Muhammad at the age
of six, but sexual intercourse did not take place
for three years. This three year delay supports
the idea that the mufti was permitting
betrothal/marriage of prepubescent girls (hence, the
marriage at the age of six) but forbidding sexual
intercourse (for three years in this case), until the
girl was able to bear it without harm coming to her,
which he says is "the age of puberty." Although many
reformist Muslims question the age of Aisha, the
traditionalist opinion has been that Aisha had passed
through puberty at the age of nine, which is why
sexual intercourse was–according to this
opinion–permissible. Clearly, the mufti's invocation
of Aisha is wholly consistent with the idea that
betrothal/marriage was permitted before puberty, but
sexual intercourse allowed only after it.
Traditionalists believe that Aisha was betrothed
before puberty, and that the marriage was consummated
after puberty. "Sexual
Intercourse" is a "Tropical Meaning" The primary,
well-known, and common meaning of nikah is
"betrothal/marriage". This is the meaning that any
competent Arabic translator would know to use. As for
the meaning of "sexual intercourse", this is
considered an unusual translation of the word. In
fact, Lane's Lexicon–widely considered the
best classical Arabic-English dictionary in the
world–notes that such usage is a "tropical
expression", something outside the normal range of
meaning. [Lane's Arabic-English Lexicon
(1968), Vol. 8, p. 2848] This fact is something
very easily verifiable by simply asking any (neutral)
Arabic speaker. And this is certainly confirmed by
the images of the dictionary pages we have reproduced
above, where we do not even see the meaning given! That
is how obscure that definition is! Furthermore, using the
translation "sexual intercourse" is even stranger in
the context of a fatwa (religious verdict). It is
well-known that fatwas use Islamic legalese.
Religious terms that are used in Islamic law have very
specific meanings. Words like halal, haram, caliph, imam, zina, sahih,
etc…These are all religious terms that even non-Arabic
speaking Muslims will know, because they have special
religious significance. The word nikah is most
definitely one such "religious term", used for example
even by Pakistani Muslims who don't usually speak
Arabic. The well-known
religious meaning of the word is found in the Quran
itself. Prof. Joseph Schacht, who is considered by
many to be the pioneer of Islamic legal studies in the
West, notes in theEncyclopedia of Islam (2nd
Edition) that while "sexual intercourse" is a meaning,
"in the Kur'an [it is] used exclusively for the
contract of marriage." Wherever the word
nikah is used in the Quran, it means the contract of
betrothal/marriage–not sexual intercourse.
(For the record, Prof. Schacht is hardly known to be
sympathic towards Islam, and his work is routinely
cited by the Islamphobic polemicist Ibn Warraq.) This trend is found in
the books of hadith and the Islamic legal literature
as well. For example, the hadith collection known as Sahih
al-Muslim has a chapter entitled "Book of
Marriage (Kitab al-Nikah)"–in it are sayings
regarding marriage, i.e. who should marry, who one can
marry, who one can propose marriage to, conditions of
marriage, etc. etc. Nary a soul would dare claim it
is the Book of Sex, since its topics are far more
wide-ranging than that. As for Islamic legal
literature, we can cite a book that Islamophobes love
to cite, The Reliance of the Traveler, that
also has in it a "Book of Marriage (Kitab al-Nikah)"–which
cannot possibly be understood to be the Book of Sex.
The examples we could cite are numerous. It is quite telling
that Al-Mutarjim invoked a "tropical definition" to a
term that Arabic speakers–even non-Arabic speaking
Muslims–know immediately as meaning
"betrothal/marriage." Additionally, the mufti uses
three different words to clearly refer to sexual
intercourse: يدخل عليها
(he enters into her) There is no ambiguity
here. But to top off the absurdity of using a
"tropical meaning" is the fact that the context of the
fatwa itself–as noted in the above section–would
completely negate such an unusual usage. The desire
to do so can only be born out of a specific agenda. Conclusion We must reiterate here
that we do not agree with the IslamOnline
fatwa. Therefore, we do not see the need to defend
its substance. (Future articles will tackle the
dispute about Aisha's age, the minimum age of marriage
in Islam [although it was briefly discussed here],
etc.) The focus here ought to be Al-Mutarjim's
misleading and dishonest translations. Our readers
simply need to compare the original "translation" he
provided to the updated translation he was forced to
publish after we exposed his original. The dramatic
difference–between his own initial translation and the
new one we forced him to provide–speaks volumes! Al-Mutarjim argues: Regardless of
whatever personal (and vague) advice the Mufti gives
much later in his fatwa, the case is already closed
per the Qur'an and Sunnah. We are not going to
argue what the Quran and Sunna say regarding the
matter, as that is another topic altogether. The fact
that the mufti himself does not understand the Quran
and Sunna to imply what al-Mutarjim states it implies,
is itself telling. The issue here is that Al-Mutarjim
translated a fatwa from an IslamOnline mufti, making
it seem as if the mufti was perfectly fine with sexual
intercourse with prepubescent girls. But here is what
Al-Mutarjim purposefully excluded from his
"translation": (1) The mufti forbade
sexual intercourse before puberty, arguing that "at
the very least" puberty should be the minimum age for
marriage. (2) The mufti noted
that sexual intercourse with prepubescent girls should
be prevented because it can cause severe "negative
physical and emotional ramifications that would stay
with her for the rest of her life." (3) Betrothal/marriage
of prepubescent girls is, according to the mufti, a
thing of the past and no longer applicable. All of this was hidden
in those ever so strategic ellipses. Al-Mutarjim's
response seems to imply that our criticism of his
translation revolved solely around that one word (nikah)
and that one sentence. Yet, even if
we pretend, for argument's sake only, that he
translated it correctly (which he didn't), this does
not change the fact that he has produced a highly
misleading and dishonest translation. He purposefully
deleted all three points above (and 4/5ths of the
fatwa), a deception that is even greater than simply
mistranslating one sentence. The fact that Al-Mutarjim
and his defenders are trying to make it all about one
word and one sentence indicates their desire to
obfuscate the issue. So let's be very clear: Al-Mutarjim's
translation is fraudulent not just because of one
sentence but because he purposefully omitted key
information from the fatwa. This begs the
question: why? Why did Al-Mutarjim hide
these very important points? Why did he neglect to
translate 4/5th's of the fatwa? Why was there even a
need for an "updated version" of the translation,
which magically only appeared when we criticized his
first one? Had his first translation been an honest
one, why the need for an update? We think the reasons
for this are patently obvious. To conclude: Al-Mutarjim
had "translated" a fatwa making it seem as if it
permitted sexual intercourse with prepubescent girls,
even though it said the exact opposite–namely, that
the age of puberty is to be considered the minimum age
"at the very least." Using ellipses, the
Translating-Jihad site manipulates texts…kind of like
if we rendered Al-Mutarjim's words like so: I previously
produced an excerpted translation…deliberately
taking things out of context… My goal…is being
dishonest. Addendum I: SATV's dishonesty can
be gauged by his conciliatory comment on our site: I believe that much
of your response to Translating-Jihad was also quite
good. I won't speak for him, but I agreed with much
of your grammatical analysis. Where I disagree is
your assumption that people critical of Islam
deliberately mistranslate Arabic. and his completely
opposite attitude on his blog. Would SATV like to be
honest and state on his blog that he agrees with our
grammatical analysis of Al-Mutarjim's "translation"? Also, note here the
invocation of a "whenever" and "anybody" argument once
again: "your assumption that people critical of
Islam deliberately mistranslate Arabic". Here,
we are talking about oneparticular person
and one particular site. Each stands on its
own merits. Al-Mutarjim specifically and
Translating-Jihad specifically are
deliberately mistranslating and obfuscating Arabic.
The evidence speaks for itself, and SATV's refusal to
admit this speaks to his own dishonesty. |